I really disagree with this research. I have a hard
time believing that anyone could have difficulty answering
the cup question
(although I can't say about the verbal
question).
Of course I'll ask a few people about it to
see what results I get, but I really doubt they'll match.
But if a difference is noted, what does that prove?
For me, it's further case for sexist conditioning, not
some sex-related difference (as implied by the suggestion
that the 'ability to solve it comes with puberty').
Ps. Don't think that I'm mad at Tilly. I just completely
disagree with whomever wrote the article he mentioned and
am determined to have my experience disprove it :)
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